Originally posted by M Mistroni:
hi all,
i found this question twice, .. i still cannot understand the answer..
Which two are true about bean-managed transaction demarcation?
A) A transaction used by a BMT bean MUST have been started by the bean.
B) The caller's transaction will be propagated into a BMT bean.
C) Transactions in a BMT bean do not propagate when the BMT bean calls a method on another bean.
D) A bean cannot use both CMT and BMT together.
E) BMT beans must not specify transaction attributes
Now, correct answers are D and E
but i can't undrestand why A is wrong..
if no transaction can be propagated into a bean using BMT, doesnt' that mean that every transaction the bean uses must have been started by the bean?
can anyone clarify?
thanks and regars
Marco
Can you mention the source of this question? The statements are generic context to context the answer may vary.