In this code, would "that.jsp" be able to access the bean "address" by jsp:getProperty without using useBean declaration?
This is a question from SCWCD kit and they say, if the scope was anything other than page, then that.jsp can access the bean "address" by declaring it using useBean and then by getProperty. But I run the code and see that even without useBean, that.jsp could access the "address" bean in this.jsp, when the scope is anything other than page.
So what should I conclude? I need your valuable opinion.
Thanks. [ September 07, 2004: Message edited by: S Subramonyan ]
posted 13 years ago
Because the first JSP has a useBean tag that does not specify the scope, then the PAGE scope is used. Therefore, only that page will have access to the attribute (and not "that.jsp"). If you had used any other scope, then it would be accessible.