If I want to select somethings only from table 1, but I inner join table 2 anyways, will I recieve an error or anything? You won't receive an error. That's a valid query.
The more important question though is whether it's the
correct query, given what you're trying to accomplish.
Or would the output be the same as if I didn't inner join in the first place? Impossible to answer, given what you've told us. It depends entirely on the data in the tables and the conditions in your query.
Here's a quick-and-dirty query that fits your scenario -- two tables inner joined (on a funky inequality, no less!). Only fields from table 1 are selected. The results of this query greatly depend on the value from table 2 in the join condition.
select t1.*
from table1 t1 inner join table2 t2
on t1.transaction_dt > t2.cutoff_dt
So, in other words, we need more info about what you're trying to do in order to provide a better answer.
(Note: before anyone screams "
you should have written that query with a subselect, not a join," I know there are several ways of doing what I did, but the point was to write a query that met the original poster's criteria.)