Originally posted by <zirf>:
Can exgibicionizm exist separately from exgibicionist?
In terms of
creating the exhibitionism, of course not. But in terms of how it's perceived, I think it can, and in fact should. Exhibitionism itself is unilateral and doesn't involve any need to be "understood". Literature, on the other hand, at least pretends to carry meaning for the perceiver. I suppose "literary exhibitionism", if there is such a thing, must be a combination of the two: the author exhibits himself for purely selfish reasons, and the reader is left trying to understand the meaning of it all.