I always thought that a business method call from a bean A on the local interface of a bean B was done in the same Thread as the execution of the method in B ? Probably that it is so in most server implementations, but is that required by the specification ? I think that the contrary would make server code and transaction management much harder...
Thanks in Advance for your responses...
More over in a previous post in an another topic I posted the way I would implement EJB in order to achieve scalability and fail-over with beans (things I know are NOT guaranteed by the spec). Is that realistic ? (Note: I don't want to implement a Server, just to get an idea of realistic implementations).
I am interested in developing an EJB 3 implementation as well (time has been my biggest problem for this). If you are serious about this, send me an email at email@example.com.
Reza, thanks for your answer but like I said in my first post, I don't want to implement the spec. I just want to get a deep understanding of things and know how it is possible to write efficient implementations of the spec.
If you start an implementation, I will be very interested at looking each piece of code and maybe more. ;)