I'll tell later answer I submitted and the actual answer by the person who constructed this question.
I want to see what are answers of yours. So, what is your answer and reasoning?
A question for all cricket lovers, maths genious, teachers and friends. .!!
How many maximum runs a single player can score in One day match (50 overs/ 300 balls)
No 'no balls', no wides, no extras, no over throws...So how much runs he can score max???
this quetion came in CSAT and 99% people answered it wrong..
No‑balls don't count; they count towards the score for the team, not for an individual player. Nor even an individual gentleman.
. . . or any other odd numbered score.
A few minutes ago, I wrote:. . . the other batsman would have to score a single off the first ball in every over . . .
Since I know nothing about the cricket, my answer and the reasoning was:
1. Options A, B, C, D are illegal answers as each of them ending with period. So they are invalid mathematical numbers, hence can't represent score.
2. Option G isn't a valid number too. At best it is a valid phone number code, which is paid, I'm afraid.
3. So, we are left with options E and F. From the probability theory point of view, since most of the answers (if they were legal) are multiples of 5's in order to confuse reader, my best guess would be option E.
And the "correct" answer from the question's author was:
A single batsman can score (33*49)+36 = 1653 runs in an innings without any kind of extras.
33 runs cause five sixes and last ball three to retain strike. In 50th over it will 36 as he need not keep strike any more.
So basically I was wrong I think author of the question was wrong too, purely because of poorly constructed question.
Campbell, turns out you were wrong too. But since I don't know cricket I can't verify that for sure.